Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi cấp trường môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 6 - Năm học 2019-2020 - Trường THCS Văn Thủy (Có đáp án)

Nội dung text: Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi cấp trường môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 6 - Năm học 2019-2020 - Trường THCS Văn Thủy (Có đáp án)

1. TRƯỜNG THCS VĂN THỦY ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TRƯỜNG NĂM HỌC 2019 – 2020 Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH – LỚP 6 Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút( không kể thời gian giao đề) PART 1: LISTENING (20pts) * Bài nghe gồm 2 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau 10 giây, mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu. Task 1: Listen to Liz and Michael talking about rooms in a hotel. They are going to paint the rooms. What colours are they going to paint each room? (5pts) PEOPLE JOB 0. dining room A. dark blue 1. television room B. light blue 2. first floor bedrooms C. dark green 3. second floor bedrooms D. light green 4. office E. grey 5. kitchen F. red G. white H. light yellow Your answer: 0. – G 1. - 2. - 3. - 4. - 5. - Task 2: You will hear a telephone conversation. A girl wants to speak to Martin, but he is not there. Listen and complete questions given. (5pts) PHONE MESSAGE To: (0): Martin . From: (6): Party at: (7): Time: (8): Please bring: (9): Her phone number: (10): Task 3: Listen to a conversation about how to sleep well. Write T/F. (5pts) (0) F . The guest in the studio is a teacher. 11. . . Some people can sleep well with a television on. 12. . It is bad to think a lot before going to bed. 13. . It is good to play video games before bed. 14. . It is good to turn your mobile off when you go to bed. 15. . It is bad to play loud music while you study. Task 4: Listen to Eric talking to Mary about the weekend. Their friend, Carlos, is coming to visit them. Circle the best answer. (5pts) Ex: What does Carlos hates? A. shopping B. museums C. football 16. When is the football match? A. Saturday morning B. Saturday afternoon C. Sunday afternoon 17. When are they going to eat on Saturday evening? A. at home B. in an Italian restaurant C. in a Chinese restaurant 18. What are they going to do on Sunday morning? A. go for a drive B. get up late C. go to the cinema 19. Where are they going to have lunch on Sunday? A. in a café B. in a pub C. at home
2. 20. They can’t go to the cinema on Sunday afternoon because A. Carlos doesn’t like films B. Eric doesn’t like film C. they don’t have time PART 2: PHONETIC AND GRAMMAR (40 pts) I. Phonetic: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. (5pts) 1. A. accident B. soccer C. clinic D. camera 2. A. thank B. that C. this D. those 3. A. station B. intersectionC. question D. invitation 4. A. arm B. charm C. farm D. warm 5. A. languages B. dresses C. watches D. becomes II. Vocabulary and grammar: Task 1: Choose the best answer from the four options (A or B, C, D) to complete each of the following sentences. (10 pts) 11. My brother, Minh . English on Monday and Friday. A. not have B. don’t have C. isn’t have D. doesn’t have 12. Hoang’s father gets up at 7.00 and eats . A. a big breakfast B. the big breakfast C. big breakfast D. a breakfast big 13. They like . weather because they can go swimming. A. hot B. cold C. windy D. foggy 14. . fruit does Mr. Thanh produce? A. How much B. How many C. How long D. How often 15. Hung and . would like to join the English Speaking Club. A. me B. my C. mine D. I 16. We’re having an English examination . Friday, 11th December. A. at B. in C. to D. on 17. They are playing table tennis now. - . you like table tennis? A. Have B .Is C.Are D. Do 18. I hope the . can repair our car quickly. A. mechanic B. architect C. reporter D. Dentist 19.Is your school . the zoo? A. near to B. in front to C. next D. in front of 20. My friends often go to school at . in the morning. A.a quarter to seven B.seven to a quarter C. seven quarter D. a quarter seven Task 2: There is one mistake in each sentence. Find and correct it (10pts) 0. When he was young he can run very fast. can => could 36. A lot of my friends play soccer, but not much of them play tennis. 37. Mr. Phong rides his bike to work at the moment. 38. The Browns are traveling to Ho Chi Minh City in train now 39. My brother, Quan, is twenty-one year old and he is a student. 40. There is an England examination on Friday, 11th December. 41. We live on a nice and clean house in the country. 42. Hoa ‘s school have got twenty classrooms. 43. It is very dangerously to drive too fast. 44. Can you go to the store to buy some fruit to me? 45. I would like buying a packet of tea and a tube of toothpaste. Task 3: Give the correct form of the word in brackets to complete each sentence (10pts). 46. We must be when we cross the road . CARE 47. A . . is working on his farm FARM 48. My brother is a bus DRIVE 49. Miss Thuy is . her motorbike to work RIDE 50. Near my house there is a market. It is very NOISE
3. 51. Children look very . while playing games during EXCITE break time. 52. The . of the experiment is 20 minutes. LONG 53. My aunt works as a at a university. CHEMISTRY 54. Pupils are very interested in outside class . ACT 55. Some people play sport to be ., not because they HEALTH like it. Task 4: What is the word for each description? The first letter is already there. There is one space for each other letter in the word. (5pts) (0)You use this to write with. P_ _ -> The answer is PEN 56. If you lose this, you won't be able to get into your house. K _ _ 57. Many people put these on when they want to read something. G _ _ _ _ _ _ 58. People pay for things with this. M_ _ _ _ 59. If it has been windy, you may need to do your hair with this. C _ _ _ 60. You write important dates in this, so you don’t forget them. D _ _ _ _ PART 3: READING (20pts) Task 1: Read and choose the correct answer to complete the passage. (10pts) Not many people(0) seen an otter. These animals live (61) rivers and make their homes from small pieces of wood. They usually come (62) of their homes at night. Otters are very good in the water and can swim at more than 10 kilometers (63) hour. They have thick brown hair and this (64) them warm in the water. An otter can close (65) ears and nose. This means otters can stay under water (66) several minutes. Twenty years ago, there were (67) otters in Great Britain. The water in the rivers was so dirty that many fish and insects died and the otters couldn't find anything to eat. But today there is lots of food for them (68) .the rivers are clean again. 0. A. did B . have C. are D. do 61. A at BB near C next D. near to 62. A away B off C out D. on 63. A one B a C the D. an 64.A keeps B keep C kept D. to keep 65. A the B there C this D. its 66. A since B during C for D. at 67. A few B little C any D. some 68. A after B for C when D. because Task 2: Read and complete the email. Fill in ONE word for each space. (5 pts) Dear Sally, I’m lying(0) in/under the sun on the beach. The weather is great. I’m (69) to play beach volleyball later. It (70) really nice here. The hotel is big (71) it (72) got a large swimming pool. (73) are lots of things to do here. Tomorrow (74) going to a museum. I have taken (75) of photographs which I will show you when I (76) home. It’s (77) shame you couldn’t come. Wish you were (50) . Love, John
4. Task 3: Read the passage and answer the questions. Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. (5pts) England is the biggest of the four countries in the United Kingdom. Together with Scotland and Wales, these three countries are the island of Great Britain. The English Channel is in the south between England and France. People travel to France by ferry across the English Channel or by train through the Channel Tunnel which goes under the sea. Over 50 million people live in England and that’s around 80 per cent of the total UK population. It is a multicultural country where more than 250 languages are spoken in the capital city, London. The United Kingdom is a constitutional monarchy, which means that there is a queen or king but they don’t make the laws of the country. Laws and political decisions in England are made by the Parliament of the United Kingdom. The Houses of Parliament are in central London next to the River Thames and the most famous part is the clock tower, Big Ben. Other large cities in England are Birmingham, Manchester, Liverpool, Leeds and Bristol. Outside cities, England is a very green country and has many rural areas of natural beauty such as the Lake District, an area with lots of lakes in the north, and the New Forest, a big area of forest in the south of the country. 79. Great Britain is England, A. Scotland and Northern Ireland. B. Scotland and Wales. C. Wales and Northern Ireland. D. All are correct. 80. The sea to the south of England is the A. Irish Sea. B. Celtic Sea. C. English Channel. D. Channel Tunnel 81. There are A. 50 million people living in England. B. 80 million people living in England. C. 250 million people living in England. D. 500 million people living in England82. Political decisions in England are made by A.The United Kingdom B. the queen or king. C. the Government of England. D. the Parliament of the United Kingdom. 83. The Lake District is A. Near England B. near London. C. in the south of England. D. in the north of England. PART 4: WRITING (20pts) Task 1: Use the word/phrase given to rewrite the second sentence (has the same meaning to the first sentence) (10 pts) 84. It is not good to stay up so late to listen to music. => You 85. No cities in Viet Nam are more crowded than Ho Chi Minh City. =>Ho Chi Minh City is the 86. Mr. Minh wanted a cup of tea, so he heated some water. =>Mr. Minh heated some water 87. What is the price of this hat? => How 88. How much time do you spend learning English every day? => How long does. 89. Janet doesn’t like playing sport. =>Janet is not keen 90. Is there a computer room at your school? =>Does ? 91. Phong likes science most. =>Phong’s favorite
5. 92. Living in the city is more expensive than living in the country. => Living in the country 93. How about watching Television? => Why don’t you .? Task 2: Complete each second sentence using the word given, so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence. Write between TWO and FIVE words. (5pts) (0) The Amazon River is longer than the Mekong River. short => The Mekong River is shorter than The Amazon River. 94. My mother and I go to the supermarket every day on foot. walk => My mother and I 95. I like my neighborhood most because others are not as peaceful. more => My neighborhood is than any other neighborhood. 96. My house has a small garden. is =>There in my house. 97. If you use more paper, you will waste a lot of trees. less => If you , you will save a lot of trees. 98. I like watching TV in the evening. interested => I watching TV in the evening. Task 3: Write 80 – 100 words about your future dream house. (5pts)
6. TRƯỜNG THCS VĂN THỦY ĐÁP ÁN VÀ BIỂU ĐIỂM CHẤM PART 1: LISTENING (20 pts) I. (5pts) - 1 mark for every right answer: 1. – F 2. – G 3. - E 4. - B 5. - A II. (5 pts) - 1 mark for every right answer: 6. The City Hospital 7. G8 8. 3rd /3 9. 4 p.m. to 7 p.m. 10. magazines III. (5 pts) - 1 mark for every right answer: 11. – 2 12. – 5 13. – 4 14. – 3 15. 6 II. (5 pts) - 1 mark for every right answer: 16. B 17. B 18.A 19.C 20. C PART 2: PHONETIC AND GRAMMAR (40 pts) I. Phonetic:(5pts) - 1 mark for every right answer: 21. B 22. C 23.A 24.D 25. D II. Vocabulary and grammar: Task 1: (10 pts) - 1 mark for every right answer: 26. C 27. D 28.B 29.B 30. D 31. D 32. C 33.D 34.B 35. A Task 2:(10 pts) - 1 mark for every right answer: 36. hotest -> hottest 37. drive -> driving 38. use recycle -> use recycled 39. turn on -> turn off 40. won’t feel ->don’t feel 41. went -> have gone 42. the China people -> the Chinese people 43. more pretty -> prettier 44. on -> at 45. furnitures -> furniture Task 3:(10 pts) - 1 mark for every right answer: 46. DISAPPEARED 47. VIEWERS 48. ENTERTAINMENT 49. DANISH 50. SPORTY 51. EDUCATIONAL 52. BREATHING 53. NATIONAL 54. CONVENIENT 55. POLLUTED Task 4: (5 pts) - 1 mark for every right answer: 56. RACKET 57. LIBRARY 58.STATION 59.PLANE 60. PALACE PART 3: READING (20pts) Task 1: (10 pts) - 1,25 mark for every right answer: 61. A 62. C 63.A 64. B 65. A 66. D 67.A 68. D Task 2: (5 pts) - 0,5 mark for every right answer:
7. 69. been 70. going 71. They 72.have 73. of 74. lot 75. a 76. to 77. am 78. as Task 3: (5 pts) - 1 mark for every right answer: 79. B 80. A 81. C 82.D 83. C PART 4: WRITING (20pts) Task 1: (10 pts) - 1 mark for every right answer: 84. No country in the world is bigger than Russia. 85. The stadium is in front of the hotel. 86. I can’t do this exercise because it is very difficult. 87. How much is this hat? 88. How often do you listen to music? 89. There is a big party after/at the end of the meeting finishes. 90. Dr Jones is very busy but I’m sure she’ll be able to see you tomorrow. 91. She is interested in / fond of the history of television. 92. Living in the city is more expensive than living in the country. 93. Why don’t you watch TV? Task 2: (5pts) - 1 mark for every right answer 94.My mother and I walk to the supermarket everyday. 95. My village is more beautiful than any other villages. 96. I only want a little sugar in my coffee. 97. If people take a bath instead of having a shower, they will waste a lot of water. 98. I am not interested in what you think! Task 3: (5 pts) - The candidate’s paragraph should be included the following points: + (1pts) Organization: Introduction – body – ending – linking words + (3pts) Content: should be clear, logical and creative with explanations + (1pts) Language skills: should be free of grammatical and spelling errors