File nghe + Đề kiểm tra cuối kì II Tiếng Anh 9 - Năm học 2021-2022 - Trường THCS Chiến Thắng (Có đáp án + Ma trận)

Nội dung text: File nghe + Đề kiểm tra cuối kì II Tiếng Anh 9 - Năm học 2021-2022 - Trường THCS Chiến Thắng (Có đáp án + Ma trận)

1. UBND HUYỆN AN LÃO ĐỀ KIỂM TRA CUỐI HỌC KÌ II TRƯỜNG THCS CHIẾN THẮNG NĂM HỌC: 2022 - 2023 MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 9 Thời gian làm bài 60 phút I. Matrix Theme Recognition Understandin Application Total/ Unit 7- 12 g Low level High level Weightin g MCQ Compos MCQ Compos MCQ Compos MC Compos e e e Q e Part I. Listen and Listen and choose Listening decide if the the best answer. sentences true (T) or false (F) Questions 5 5 10 Points 1.0 2,0 1,0 (20%) Part II. Choose the Choose the Language word with the word with different different stress underlined from the others sound (2,4 syllables) (t/i) Questions 2 2 4 Points 0.4 0.4 0.8 (8%) Grammar and - Tense vocabularies - Comunicating - Word form - Vocabulary - preposition - Proverb Questions 2 2 2 6 Points 0.4 0.4 1.2(12 0.4 %) Part III. Read the text Read the text and Reading and choose the choose the best best answer for answer for each each gap. question 1
2. Questions 5 5 10 Points 1.0 1.0 2,0 (20%) Part Each sentence Rearrange the Use the given Rewrite the IV.Writing has a mistake. words to make words to make sentences in Find and meaningful meaningful such a way that correct it sentences sentences the meaning of the original one does not change. Questions 2 3 3 2 10 Points 0,6 0,6 2.0(20 0.4 0,4 %) Total number 6 9 8 10 5 2 of questions 40 Total number 1.8 1.6 2.0 1.0 0.4 8.0 of points 1.2 (18%) (16%) (10%) (80%) (12%) (20%) (4%) 2
3. UBND HUYỆN AN LÃO ĐỀ KIỂM TRA CUỐI HỌC KÌ II TRƯỜNG THCS CHIẾN THẮNG NĂM HỌC: 2022 - 2023 MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 9 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút Họ và tên:.......................................... SBD............... GT1:................ Điểm thi ........................................................... Lớp:................ GT2:................ PART I. LISTENING (2,0 P) I. 4 teen is asking two students about their eating habits. Listen to what they say and decide if the statements are T or F (1,0P) 1. Nicolas gets up early to have a real breakfast _____ 2. Nicolas is always hungry at lunch time _____ 3. Nicolas likes fried beef, noodles, and fish _____ 4. Maya has healthy eating habits _____ 5. She doesn't buy lunch at school; instead, she prepares lunch box __________ II. Listen and choose the best answer. (1,0P) 1. ........ is the language which is spoken as a first language by most people in the world. A. English B. Chinese C. French D. Russian 2. English has ............words and 300, 000 technical terms. A. 300, 000 B. 50,000 C. 15, 000 D. 500, 000 3. Duong thinks if there weren’t so many words, it would be . for us to learn English A. quicker B. difficult C. easier D. earlier 4. Some English verbs are ..their nouns or adjectives. A. different from B. the same as C. changed according to D. not the same as 5. One of the reasons why the vocabulary of English is open is that it has A.a lot of words B. Many varieties C. borrowed many words D. simplicity PART II: LANGUAGE (2,0 P) I. Choose the word whose underline part is pronounced differently from the others.(0.4P) 1. A. openness B. continent C. operate D. dominant 2. A. varied B. simplified C. mastered D. immersed II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern isn’t the same as that of the others.(0,4P) 1. A. spacecraft B. remind C. wander D. surface 2. A. minority B. commitment C. technology D. expedition III. Choose the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences.(1,2 P) 1. I decided ___________ at this hotel for the next five days. A. to stay B. staying C. stay D. stayed 2. My mother is always ______________________ dressed on special occasions. A. beauty B. beautifully C. beautiful D. beautified 3. Ryan: How was your trip to Vietnam after 10 years Bob: _______________ A. No, I can’t tell you. B. Thank you for asking me. C. Amazing! I couldn’t believe how much it has changed! D. 10 years? It’s 11 years. 4. Mark letter A, B, C, D to indicate the word SIMILAR in meaning to the underline word. There are some drawbacks in the city life nowadays. 3
4. A. disadvantages B. entertainment C. benefits D. advantages 5. Susan was ______________ when she heard that she won the first prize in the contest. A. under the sun B. over the moon C. in the sky D. in the world 6. We have narrowed ______ ____________the list to four candidates. A. on B. down C. into D. up PART III. READING (2,0 P) I. Read the following passage and mark letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word that best completes each blank. (1, 0P) English is the first language of many people in countries outside the United Kingdom. When you meet speakers of English from around the world, you immediately notice that they do not all speak in the same way. There are also some (1) .in the words they use, including the names of common objects that are part of everyone’s daily life. (2) pronunciation and vocabulary are not the same everywhere, it is interesting that English speakers from opposite sides of the world can (3) .. each other quite easily. It does not seem to matter where they learnt the language. And of course this is one reason (4) speakers of other languages are keen on learning English too. If you know English, you are more likely to be able to study (5) ..work in all sorts of exciting places, such as the United States or Australia. 1. A. changes B. corrections C. differences D. mistakes 2. A. Because B. Although C. Despite D. Inspite of 3. A. talk B. say C. see D. understand 4. A. what B. when C. how D. why 5. A. both B. or C. but D. so II. Read the following passage and mark letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions that follow.(1,0 P) Getting good results in your studies come from developing good study habits . The best place to study is a comfortable room with good lighting. The best chair for studying should be one which you would be comfortable in, but not so comfortable that you may fall asleep in it after a while. Before you study, look for a quiet environment with no distractions. If you find your home too noisy for studying, try the library or community center instead. When you study, set realistic goals for yourself to achieve. For example, do not try to study five chapters of Geography in one sitting when you know that you take more than an hour to read one chapter. Furthermore, remember not to push yourself too hard. When you have studied for a period of time, reward yourself by taking a short break. You could perhaps take a short walk or listen to some music for a while. If you begin to feel sleepy when studying, do not force yourself to go on as you may lose your power on concentration. Instead, you may want to take a short nap to refresh yourself. Studying may also be strenuous on the eyes. When you study, it may be good idea to lift your eyes away from your books occasionally. Looking at objects at a distance or at greenery can help soothe tired eyes. 1. The first thing to be considered in developing good study habits is . A. environment for studying B. your ability to study well C. your attitude towards good study at home D. the best chair to sit for studying 2. What does the word “it” in line 4 refer to? A. a quiet room. B. a right- sized table. C. a chair D. a library. 4
5. 3. When studying, you’d better A. learn either sitting at the table or standing. B. set goals that you are reachable for them. C. take a short break after every chapter. D. learn as much as you want in one sitting. 4. Taking a short nap is necessary when A. you want to go on after getting your concentration. B. your eyes become red after studying C. you cannot lift your eyes away from your books D. you feel sleepy and cannot concentrate on studying 5. The best title for the passage may be A. How to build up good study habits. B. How to use your study time efficiently. C. How to get relaxed when studying D. How to avoid sleepiness when studying PART IV. WRITING (2,0 P) I. Each sentence has a mistake. Find and correct it (0,4P) 1. Today the number of people enjoying winter sports are almost double that of twenty years ago. A. enjoying B. ago C. are D. the number 2. My teacher who husband works as an artist can compose songs. A. compose B. who C. works D. an artist II. Rearrange the words to make meaningful sentences (0,6P) 1. Mai/ going/ to / suggests/ Ngoc Son temple/ New Year’s Eve/on. ............................................................................................................................. 2. The old man/ bicycle/ I/whose / borrowed/is/ yesterday/ in/working/ this factory. ............................................................................................................................. 3. Tom /asked/ what time/ Mark/ he/home/ had/ the/ come/ previous night. ............................................................................................................................. III. Rewrite the sentences in such a way that the meaning of the original one does not change. (0,4P) 1. I’m not a millionaire, so I can’t take a trip to space. If I .. 2. People know that Phong Nha Cave was found in the 16th century by Cham people. It IV. Use the given words to make meaningful sentences (0,6P) 1. She /used //play games/ a lot/ when she / a child. 2. I/ grateful /that/ you/ help/ my brother/ do /that work. .. 3. Life/ city /not / peaceful / as/ life / the countryside. .. ĐÁP ÁN VÀ BIỂU ĐIỂM BÀI KIỂM TRA CUỐI HK II MÔN: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 9 PART I. LISTENING (2,0 P) I. Listen and decide if the following statements are true (T) or false (F). (1,0 P) 1. F 2. T 3. T 4. T 5. T II. Listen and choose the best answer. (1,0P) 1. B 2. D 3. C 4.B 5.C PART II. LANGUAGE (2,0 P ) 5
6. I. Choose the word that has underlined part pronounced differently from the others.(0,4P) 1. A 2. D II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern isn’t the same as that of the others. (0,4P) 1. B 2. D III. Choose the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences. (1,2P) 1. A 2. B 3. C 4.A 5.B 6. B PART III. READING (2,0P) I. Put a word from the box in each gap to complete the following passage. (1,0P) 1. C 2. B 3. D 4.D 5.B II. Read the text and choose the best answer for each question. (1,0P) 1. A 2. C 3. B 4.D 5. A PART IV. WRITING (2,0P) I. Each sentence has a mistake. Find and correct it (0,4P) 1. C 2. B II. Rearrange the words to make meaningful sentences (0,6P) 1. Mai suggests going to Ngoc Son temple on New Year’s Eve. 2. The old man whose bicycle I borrowed yesterday is working in this factory. 3. Tom asked Mark what time he had come home the previous night. III. Rewrite the sentences in such a way that the meaning of the original one does not change. (0,4P) 1. If I were a a millionaire, I could take a trip to space.. 2. It is known that Phong Nha Cave was found in the 16th century by Cham people. IV. Use the given words to make meaningful sentences (0,6P) 1. She used to play games a lot when she was a child. 2. I am grateful that you helped my brother do that work. 3. Life in the city is not as peaceful as life in the countryside. XÁC NHẬN CỦA BGH KÍ DUYỆT CỦA TỔ NGƯỜI RA ĐỀ Đặng Thị Phương 6