Bộ đề ôn thi THPT Quốc gia năm 2018 môn Tiếng Anh

Nội dung text: Bộ đề ôn thi THPT Quốc gia năm 2018 môn Tiếng Anh

1. BỘ ĐỀ ễN THI THPT NĂM 2018
2. PRACTICE TEST 1 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. chorus B. Christian C. cholesterol D. check Question 2: A. enough B. rough C. tough D. though Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. ordinary B. emphasis C. decompose D. calendar Question 4: A. comfortable B. necessary C. community D. memorable Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following question. Question 5: The school was closed for a month because of a serious of fever. A. outbreak B. outburst C. outset D. outcome Question 6: Many plant and animal species are now on the of extinction. A. danger B. border C. verge D. margin Question 7: There you are: the ___person I was looking for. A. utter B. correct C. ever D. very Question 8: Patient: "Can I make an appointment to see the doctor, please?" Receptionist: “ ” A. Not at the moment. He can't be disturbed. B. OK, you will need to check my diary. C. OK, let me just check the diary. D. Have a seat and I'll be with you in an hour. Question 9: My wallet at the station while I ___ for the train. A. must have been stolen/was waiting B. should have stolen/had been waiting C. will be stolen/am waiting D. had to steal/would be waiting Question 10: The new manager very strict rules as soon as he had the position A. laid down/taken over B. put down/taken over C. lay down/taken up D. wrote down/come over Question 11: Newspaper publishers in the States have estimated reads a newspaper every day. A. nearly 80 percent of the adult population who B. it is nearly 80 percent of the adult population C. that nearly 80 percent of the adult population who D. that nearly 80 percent of the adult population Question 12: “Wow! What a nice coat you are wearing!” – “ ” A. Certainly. Do you like it, too? B. I like you to say that C. Yes, of course. It‘s expensive D. Thanks. My mother bought it for me. Question 13: It’s not in my nature to over the price of something. A. haggle B. discuss C. challenge D. transact Question 14: Although the conditions weren’t ideal for a walk, we decided to a go of it. A. make B. do C. run D. carry Question 15: Her outgoing character contrast with that of her sister. A. sharply B. thoroughly C. fully D. coolly Question 16: She clearly joined the firm with a (an) to improving herself professionally. A. view B. aim C. plan D. ambition Question 17: The curriculum at the public school is as good of any private school. A. or better than B. as or better than that C. as or better that D. as or better than those Question 18: Where have you been? You were to be here half an hour ago. A. allowed B. had C. supposed D. thought Read the following passage and blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Have you ever entered a tropical rainforest? It’s a special, dark place completely different from anywhere else. A rainforest is a place where the trees grow very tall. Millions of kinds of animals, insects, and plants live in the rainforest. It is hot and humid in a rainforest. It rains a lot in the rainforest, but sometimes you don’t know it’s raining. The trees grow so closely together that rain doesn’t always reach the ground. Rainforests make up only a small part of the Earth’s surface, about six percent. They are found in tropical parts of the world. The largest rainforest in the world is the Amazon in South America. The Amazon covers 1.2 billion acres, or almost five million square kilometers. The second largest rainforest is in Western Africa. There are also rainforests in Central America, Southeast Asia, Northeastern Australia, and the Pacific Islands. Rainforests provide us with many things. In fact, the Amazon Rainforest is called the “lungs of our planet” because it produces twenty percent of the world’s oxygen. One fifth of the world’s fresh water is also found in the Amazon Rainforest. Furthermore, one half of the world’s species of animals, plants, and insects live in the
3. Earth’srainforests. Eighty percent of the food we eat first grew in the rainforest. For example, pineapples, bananas, tomatoes, corn, potatoes, chocolate, coffee, and sugar all came from rainforests. Twenty-five percent of the drugs we take when we are sick are made of plants that grow only in rainforests. Some of these drugs are even used to fight and cure cancer. With all the good things we get from rainforests, it’s surprising to find that we are destroying our rainforests. In fact, 1.5 acres, or 6,000 square meters, of rainforest disappear every second. The forests are being cut down to make fields for cows, to harvest the plants, and to clear land for farms. Along with losing countless valuable species, the destruction of rainforests creates many problems worldwide. Destruction of rainforests results in more pollution, less rain, and less oxygen for the world. Question 19: What is the focus of this reading? A. Kinds of forests B. Where rainforests are located C. Facts about rainforests D. How much oxygen rainforests make Question 20: The word “humid” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ___. A. wetB. rainyC. cloudyD. foggy Question 21: Rainforests provide human all of the following EXCEPT? A. Drugs used to fight and cure cancer B. Oxygen C. Fresh water D. lungs of the world population Question 22: Why is the Amazon Rainforest called the “lungs of the planet”? A. It helps us breathe. B. It uses much of the world’s oxygen. C. It helps circulation.D. It provides much of our air. Question 23: Where would you NOT find a rainforest? A. Hawaii B. CanadaC. Australia D. Brazil Question 24: The world “all” in paragraph 3 refers to ___. A. food people eatB. drugs people useC. rainforestsD. the world’s species Question 25: The word “harvest” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ___. A. destroyB. gatherC. reduceD. create Question 26: What is the most likely reason why the author is surprised that we are destroying rainforests? A. They are necessary for the health of our planet. B. They are necessary for the fight against cancer. C. It will be too expensive to replant them. D. It will be too difficult to grow food without them. Blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction. Question 27: Televisions are now an everyday feature of most households in the United States, AB and television viewing is the number one activity leisure . C D Question 28: The flamingo constructs a cylindrical mud nest for its egg, which both parents care ABC for it . D Question 29: The rapid growth of the world's population over the past 100 years have led to a A B great increase in the acreage of land under cultivation. CD Read the following passage and blacken the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks How men first learnt to invent words is unknown; in other words, the origin of language is a (30) . All we really know is that men, unlike animals, somehow invented certain sounds to express thoughts and feelings, actions and things so that they could communicate with each other; and that later they agreed (31) certain signs, called letters, which could be combined to represent those sounds, and which could be written down. These sounds, (32) spoken or written in letters, are called words. Great writers are those who not only have great thoughts but also express these thoughts in words that appeal powerfully to our minds and emotions. This charming and telling use of words is what we call literacy type. Above all, the real poet is a master of words. He can (33) his meanings in words which sing like music, and which by their position and association can move men to tears. We should, therefore, learn to choose our words carefully, (34) they will make our speech silly and vulgar. Question 30: A. story B. secret C. mystery D. legend Question 31: A. at B. upon C. with D. to Question 32: A. if B. however C. whether D. though Question 33: A. carry B. convey C. transfer D. transmit Question 34: A. or B. so C. although D. because
4. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 35: If it’s raining tomorrow, we’ll have to postpone the match till Sunday. A. put off B. cancel C. play D. put away Question 36: We should find ways to improve our products in terms of quality and packaging. A. for considering aspects B. in spite of C. with a view to D. in regard to Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 37: The government is encouraging everyone to save water by not washing their cars. A. conserve B. waste C. avoid D. collect Question 38: Don’t tease her; she is fragile. A. strong B. breakable C. angry D. pissed off Read the following passage and blacken the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Until recently, hunting for treasure from shipwrecks was mostly fantasy; with recent technological advances, however, the search for sunken treasure has become more popular as a legitimate endeavor. This has caused a debate between those wanting to salvage the wrecks and those wanting to preserve them. Treasure hunters are spurred on by the thought of finding caches of gold coins or other valuable objects on a sunken ship. One team of salvagers, for instance, searched the wreck of the RMS Republic, which sank outside the Boston harbor in 1900. The search party, using side-scan sonar, a device that projects sound waves across the ocean bottom and produces a profile of the sea floor, located the wreck in just two and a half days. Before the use of this new technology, such searches could take months or years. The team of divers searched the wreck for two months, finding silver tea services, crystal dinnerware, and thousands of bottles of wine, but they did not find the five and a half tons of American Gold Eagle coins they were searching for. Preservationists focus on the historic value of a ship. They say that even if a shipwreck's treasure does not have a high monetary value, it can be an invaluable source of historic artifacts that are preserved in nearly mint condition. But once a salvage team has scoured a site, much of the archaeological value is lost. Maritime archaeologists who are preservationists worry that the success of salvagers will attract more treasure-hunting expeditions and thus threaten remaining undiscovered wrecks. Preservationists are lobbying their state lawmakers to legally restrict underwater searches and unregulated salvages. To counter their efforts, treasure hunters argue that without the lure of gold and million-dollar treasures, the wrecks and their historical artifacts would never be recovered at all. Question 39: What is the main idea of this passage? A. Searching for wrecks is much easier with new technologies like side-scan sonar. B. Maritime archaeologists are concerned about the unregulated searching of wrecks. C. The search of the RMS Republic failed to produce the hoped-for coins. D. The popularity of treasure seeking has spurred a debate between preservationists and salvagers. Question 40: The word "sunken" in line 2 is closest in meaning to which of the following words? A. broken B. underwater C. ancient D. hollow Question 41: Which of the following statements is best supported by the author? A. The value of a shipwreck depends on the quantity of its artifacts. B. Preservationists are fighting the use of technological advances such as side-scan sonar. C. Side-scan sonar has helped to legitimize salvaging. D. The use of sound waves is crucial to locating shipwrecks. Question 42: The author uses the phrase "mint condition" in line 12-13 to describe A. something perfect B. something significant C. something tolerant D. something magical Question 43: All of the following were found on the RMS Republic EXCEPT A. wine bottles B. silver tea services C. American Gold Eagle coins D. crystal dinnerware Question 44: From the passage, you can infer that a preservationist would be most likely to A. shun treasure-seeking salvagers B. be a diver C. put treasures in a museum D. do archaeological research Question 45: The second and third paragraphs are an example of A. chronological order B. explanation C. specific to general D. definition Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions Question 46: Had he known more about the internet, he would have invested in some computer companies A. Knowing about the internet help him invest in some computer company B. He didn’t know much about the internet and he didn’t invest in any computer companies C. Knowing about the internet , he would have invested in some computer companies
5. D. He would have invested in some computer companies without his knowledge of the internet Question 47: You should have persuaded him to change his mind A. It was essential to persuade him to change his mind but you didn’t B. You should persuade him to change his mind C. You persuade him to change his mind but he didn’t D. You didn’t persuade him to change because of his mind Question 48: Tom regrets to say that he has left his tickets at home A. Tom regrets leaving the tickets at home B. Tom was sorry that he has left the tickets at home C. Tom wishes he hadn’t left the ticket at home D. Tom regrets to leave the ticket at home Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on you answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49: John was not here yesterday. Perhaps he was ill. A. John needn't be here yesterday because he was ill. B. Because of his illness, John shouldn't have been here yesterday. C. John might have been ill yesterday, so he was not here. D. John must have been ill yesterday, so he was not here. Question 50: "Cigarette?", he said. "No, thanks. ", I said. A. He asked for a cigarette, and I immediately refused. B. He mentioned a cigarette, so I thanked him. C. He offered me a cigarette, but I promptly declined. D. He asked if I was smoking, and I denied at once. PRACTICE TEST 2 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. serves B. hopesC. likesD. writes Question 2: A. substantial B. initiateC. particularD. attention Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. express B. effortC. employD. reduce Question 4: A. preference B. attractionC. advantageD. infinitive Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 5: The passengers, tired after a very long trip, was relaxing in every available seat in the A B C D airport lobby. Question 6: If we had more time last week, we would certainly have finished the project on time. A B C D Question 7: Sleeping, resting, and to drink fruit juice are the best ways to care for a cold. A B C D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 8: I’d like to see that football match because I___once this year. A. haven’t seen B. don’t see C. weren’t seeing D. didn’t see Question 9: They always kept on good ___with their next-door neighbors for the children’s sake. A. will B. friendship C. terms D. relations Question 10: Some candidates failed the oral examination because they didn’t have enough ___. A. confide B. confident C. confidential D. confidence Question 11: Our new coach is popular ___the whole team. A. for B. to C. by D. with Question 12: Don’t go too fast! I can’t ___up with you. A. keep B. go C. walk D. run Question 13: I have no idea where ___. A. has she got that information B. she got that information C. did she get that information D. that information has she got Question 14: That’s___story I have ever heard. A. a ridiculous B. the ridiculous C. the more ridiculous D. the most ridiculous Question 15: We bought some ___. A. German lovely old glasses B. German old lovely glasses
6. C. lovely old German glasses D. old lovely German glasses Question 16: ___non-verbal language is___important aspect of interpersonal communication. A. The - a B. ứ – an C. A – the D. The - ứ Question 17: Their apartment looks nice. In fact, it’s___. A. extremely comfortable B. extreme comfortably C. extreme comfortable D. extremely comfortably Question 18: My teacher is one of the people ___ . A. I look up to them B. whom look up to C. I look up to D. to who I look up to Question 19: In my company, the director deputy usually ___the responsibility for organizing meetings and conferences . A. makes B. gets C. becomes D. takes Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 20: “Would you mind turning down the TV? I’m working!” “___.” A. Yes, I’m working, too. B. Not at all. I’ll do it now. C. Thank you. I’m pleased. D. No, I wouldn’t be working. Question 21: “Please, lock the door carefully before you leave the room.” “___.” A. I won’t tell you when I do it. B. I’m thinking of selling the house. C. That’s for sure. D. I’m sorry. I did it last night. Mark the letter A, B, C,or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: Mr. Gerstein was particularly taken back to hear that sleeping problems are often linked to physical problems. A. surprisedB. intended C. determined D. relieved Question 23: I shouldn’t go outside without a raincoat because it’s raining cats and dogs. A. it’s just started to rain B. it’s raining very heavily C. it’s going to rain D. it’s drizzling Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24: I could only propose a partial solution to the crisis in the company. A. half B. halfway C. effective D. complete Question 25: Inadequate supply of oxygen to the blood can cause death within minutes. A. Sufficient B. Nonexistent C. Rich D. Useful Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26: You ought to make up your mind now. A. It is high time you made up your mind. B. Making up your mind is necessary. C. You should have made up your mind.D. It is possible to make up your mind. Question 27: “No, no, you really must stay a bit longer!” said the boys. A. The boys denied my staying a bit longer. B. The boys refused to let me stay a bit longer. C. The boys didn’t agree to let stay a bit longer.D. The boys insisted on my staying a bit longer. Question 28: My uncle didn’t recognize me until I spoke. A. My uncle recognized me not until I spoke. B. Only when my uncle recognized me did I speak. C. Not until I spoke did my uncle recognize me.D. When I spoke, my uncle didn’t recognize me. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 29: I picked up my book. I found that the cover had been torn. A. When picking up my book, the cover had been torn. B. On picking up my book, I saw that the cover had been torn. C. The cover had been torn when my book picked up. D. Picked up, the book was torn. Question 30: Home schooling is apparently very successful. Many people still believe in the benefits of traditional schooling. A. Because home schooling is apparently very successful, many people still believe in the benefits of traditional schooling. B. As long as home schooling is apparently very successful, many people still believe in the benefits of traditional schooling.
7. C. Even though home schooling is apparently very successful, many people still believe in the benefits of traditional schooling. D. In spite of home schooling is apparently very successful, many people still believe in the benefits of traditional schooling. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. ENGLISH AROUND THE WORLD Teaching English as a foreign language can be a great way to travel around the world and earn money at the same time. However, some graduates actually like the idea of (31)___ a career in teaching English, and there are numerous courses at various (32) ___ , from the basic certificates to the diploma or even the master’s. To find the right course, a good place to start is TEFL.com – an Internet site with lots of relevant information and helpful (33) ___ including a full list of places in the UL offering courses. The site also offers assistance to qualified graduates (34) ___ finding work. When deciding on a course, the best thing to do is to look at what your needs are. If you want a career in teaching English, then definitely find one designed for that (35) ___ , such as an MA or diploma; but if you want to travel around the world, then do a shorter course that will supply you with teaching skills. Question 31: A. trackingB. chasingC. hunting D. following Question 32: A. levels B. categories C. groups D. classes Question 33: A. opinion B. suggestion C. advice D. idea Question 34: A. to B. for C. atD. in Question 35: A. function B. use C. aim D. purpose Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42. Most people think that lions only come from Africa. This is understandable because in fact most lions do come from there but this has not always been the case. If we went back ten thousand years. we would find that there were lions roaming vast sections of the globe. However no, unfortunately only a very small section of the lion’s former habitat remains. Asiatic lions are sub-species of African lions. It is almost a hundred thousand years since the Asiatic lions split off and developed as a sub-species. At one time the Asiatic lion was living as far west as Greece and they were found from there, but in a band that spreads east through various countries of the Middle East, all the way to India. In museums now, you can see Greek coins that have clear images of the Asiatic lion on them. Most of them are dated at around 500 B.C. However, Europe saw its last Asiatic lions roaming free to thousand years ago. Over the next nineteen hundred years the numbers of Asiatic lions in the other areas declined steadily, but it was only in the nineteenth century that they disappeared from everywhere but in India. The Gir Wildlife Sanctuary in India was established especially to protect the Asiatic lion. There are now around three hundred Asiatic lions in India and almost all of them are in this sanctuary. However, despite living in a sanctuary, which makes them safe from hunters, they still face a number of problems that threaten their survival. One of these is the ever-present danger of disease. This is what killed more than a third of Africa’s Serengeti lions in 1994, and people are fearful that something similar could happen in the Gir Sanctuary and kill off many of the Asiatic lions there. India’s lions are particular vulnerable because they have a limited gene pool. The reason for this is interesting – it is because all of them are descended from a few dozen lions that were saved by a prince who took a particular interest in them. He was very healthy, and he managed to protect them otherwise they would probably have died out completely. When you see the Asiatic lion in India, what you sense is enormous vitality. They are very impressive animals and you would never guess that they this vulnerability when you look at them. Question 36: According to the passage, ten thousand years ago,___. A. lions did not live in small forests B. lions came mainly from Africa C. lions roamed much more than nowadays D. there were much more lion habitats than nowadays Question 37: The phrase “split off” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to___. A. spotted animals B. divided C. developed into different species D. changed the original species Question 38: The word “vulnerable” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to___. A. weakB. careless C. cautious D. easily protected Question 39: The Asiatic lion___. A. was looking for food mainly in the Middle East B. was searching for food in a wide range of countries C. was searching for food mainly in India and Africa
8. D. was looking for food mainly in India Question 40: According to the author, the Gir Wildlife Sanctuary___. A. protects the Asiatic lion from hunters and diseases B. cannot reduce the Asiatic lion’s risk of catching diseases C. can make the Asiatic lion become weak D. is among many places where the Asiatic lion is well protected Question 41: The author refers to all of the following as characteristics of the Asiatic lion EXCEPT that ___. A. strong B. vulnerable C. vital D. impressive Question 42: The passage is written to___. A. persuade readers to protect the Asiatic lions B. explain why the Gir Sanctuary is the best habitat for the Asiatic lions C. describe the developmental history of the Gir Sanctuary D. provide an overview of the existence of the Asiatic lions Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50. If you enjoy water sports, Hawaii is the place for you. You can go swimming all year round in the warm water. You can go sport fishing from the shore or from a boat. If you like boats, you can go sailing, canoeing, or windsurfing. Or, you can also try some other water sports that are especially popular in Hawaii: surfing, snorkeling and scuba diving. Surfing is a sport which started in Hawaii many years ago. The Hawaiians called it “he’e nalu”, which means “to slide on a wave”. If you want to try surfing, you need, first of all, to be a good swimmer. You also have to have an excellent sense of balance. You must swim out from the beach with your surfboard under your arm. When you get to where the waves begin to break, you wait for a calm moment. Then you try to stand up on the board. The wave will begin to rise under you. You must try to steer the board with your feet so you stay on top of the wave. The important thing is to keep your balance and not fall down. If you can manage this, you will have an exciting ride all the way in to the shore. Scuba diving and snorkeling are two ways to get a close look at the beauty lying below the surface of the ocean. The waters off the Hawaiian Islands are clean, clear and warm. They contain hundreds of kinds of colorful fish. The undersea world is made even more colorful by the coral reefs of red, gold, white and light purple. Among these reefs there may be larger fish or sea turtles. Scuba diving allows you to see the most interesting undersea sights. “Scuba” means “Self-contained Underwater Breathing Apparatus”, that is, equipment for breathing and swimming around far under water. In Hawaii, you can take special courses to learn how to scuba dive. After the courses, you can get a certificate that will allow you to dive alone. Since it can be dangerous, proper instruction and great care are always necessary when you are scuba diving. If you are adventurous, you might try snorkeling instead of scuba diving. Less equipment is needed, just a face mask, a breathing tube (snorkel) and flippers for your feet. It only takes a few minutes to learn how to snorkel. Although you cannot dive deep into the water, you can swim with your face below the surface. Breathing through the tube, you float on the surface, and keep yourself moving with your flippers. Even from the surface like this, there will be plenty of color and beauty to see. Question 43: The passage is about___. A. water sports around the world B. surfing C. tourist activities in Hawaii D. water sports in Hawaii Question 44: You can infer from the passage that___. A. water sports are all expensive B. you need to take a course for all water sports C. everyone can find a way to enjoy sports in the water D. swimming in Hawaii can be dangerous Question 45: According to the passage, surfing___. A. began as a sport in 1943 B. was invented by the native Hawaiians C. requires expensive equipment D. is very dangerous Question 46: The water around the Hawaiian Islands is___. A. often quite cold B. full of colorful things to see C. usually very dark D. full of dangerous fish Question 47: The word “this” in the second paragraph refers to___. A. standing on the board B. keeping balanced and not falling down C. an exciting ride D. staying on top of the wave Question 48: According to the passage, scuba diving___. A. is an ancient Hawaiian water sport B. requires special equipment and training C. is the only way to see the fish underwater D. requires good balance
9. Question 49: The word “proper” in paragraph 4 refers to___. A. enthusiastic B. informative C. appropriate D. short and clear Question 50: Which statement is supported by the information in the passage? A. Snorkeling involves breathing through the tube, floating on the surface and moving with flippers B. Snorkeling requires more expensive equipment than scuba diving C. Snorkeling is for adventurous people D. Snorkeling was invented in ancient times PRACTICE TEST 3 Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from others Question 1. A. machine B. change C. chalk D. chocolate Question 2. A. maps B. laughs C. calls D. costs Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to identify the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other words in the same group. Question 3. A. manage B. shortage C. village D. encourage Question 4. A. provide B. machine C. lesson D. important Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions Question 5: He takes four paracetamol everyday, not knowing that will seriously damage his liver A B C D Question 6: Caroline has worn her new yellow dress only once since she buys it. A B C D Question 7. Ancient people made a clay pottery because they needed it for their survival. A B C D Choose the answer among A, B, C, D to complete each of the sentences below: Question 8: Up to now, the teacher ___ our class five tests. A. gives B. is giving C. has given D. had given Question 9: Christine have arrived by now, she have missed the bus. A. can’t / might B. must/ can’t C. may/ should D. should / must Question 10 : What did you have for ___ breakfast this morning? A. x B. a C. an D. the Question 11 : Stress and tiredness often lead to lack of ___. A. concentrate B. concentration C. concentrated D. concentrator Question 12 : Sam’s uncle, ___ is very rich, came to visit our orphanage. A. that B. who C. whom D. whose Question 13 : Do you know that beautiful lady over there?” - “Yes, that’s Victoria. She’s ___ in her group.” A. more beautiful than any girl B. more beautiful than any other girl C. so beautiful as other girl D. beautiful more than another girl Question 14 :It was easy for him to learn baseball because he had been a cricket player. A. purposefully B. exceedingly C. relatively D. normally Question 15:It was found that he lacked the ___ to pursue a difficult task to the very end. A. persuasion B. commitment C. engagement D. obligation Question 16: Could you stand___ for me and teach my English class tomorrow morning, John? A. up B. down C. out D. in Question 17:Where’s that dress that your boyfriend gave you? A. lovely long pink silk B. lovely pink long silk C. long pink silk lovely D. pink long lovely silk Question 18: I went to a restaurant last night. I was the ten thousandth customer, so my dinner was on the A. holiday B. house C. free D. decrease Question 19:I can’t stand the car ___ Therefore, I hate traveling by car. A. illness B. sickness C. ailment D. disease Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 20: - Lisa: “Have you been able to reach Peter?” - Gina: “ ” A. That’s no approval B. Yes, I’ve known him for years C. No, the line is busy D. It’s much too high Question 21: - “Would you bother if I had a look at your paper?” - “ ” A. You’re welcome B. Well, actually I’d rather you didn’t C. That’s a good idea D. Oh, I didn’t realize that Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
10. Question 22: The bank announced that it was to merge with another of the high street banks. A. associate B. separate C. cooperate D. assemble Question 23: In remote communities, it's important to replenish stocks before the winter sets in. A. remake B. empty C. refill D. repeat Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is closest in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 24: His new yacht is certainly an ostentatious display of his wealth. A. showy B. expensive C. large D. ossified Question 25: After many year of unsuccessfully endeavoring to form his own orchestra, Glenn Miller finally achieved world fame in 1939 as a big band leader. A. requesting B. trying C. offering D. deciding Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning Question 26: It started to rain at 2 o’clock and it is still raining. A. It has been raining at 2 o’clock. B. It has been raining since 2 o’clock C. It has been raining for 2 o’clock. D. It has been raining in 2 o’clock. Question 27: “I will pay back the money, Gloria.” Said Ivan. A. Ivan apologized to Gloria for borrowing her money. B. Ivan offered to pay Gloria the money back. C. Ivan promised to pay back Gloria’s money. D. Ivan suggested paying back the money to Gloria. Question 28: Had she read the reference books, she would have been able to finish the test. A. If she had read the reference books, she could finish the test. B. Not having read the reference books, she couldn’t finish the test. C. Although she didn’t read the reference books, she was able to finish the test. D. Because she read the reference books, she was able to finish the test. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on you answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 29: He is very intelligent. He can solve all the problems in no time. A. So intelligent is he that he can solve all the problems in no time. B. He is very intelligent that he can solve all the problems in no time. C. An intelligent student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time. D. So intelligent a student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time. Question 30: We cut down many forests. The Earth becomes hot. A. The more forests we cut down, the hotter the Earth becomes. B. The more we cut down forests, the hotter the Earth becomes. C. The more forests we cut down, the Earth becomes hotter. D. The more we cut down forests, the Earth becomes hotter. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C ,or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the questions. Many ants forage across the countryside in large numbers and undertake mass migrations; these activities proceed because one ant lays a trail on the ground for the others to follow. As a worker ant returns home after finding a source of food, it marks the route by intermittently touching its stinger to the ground and depositing a tiny amount of trail pheromone – a mixture of chemicals that delivers diverse messages as the context changes. These trails incorporate no directional information and may be followed by other ants in either direction. Unlike some other messages, such as the one arising from a dead ant, a food trail has to be kept secret from members of other species. It is not surprising then that ant species use a wide variety of compounds as trail pheromones. Ants can be extremely sensitive to these signals. Investigators working with the trail pheromone of the leafcutter ant Atta texana calculated that one milligram of this substance would suffice to lead a column of ants three times around Earth. The vapor of the evaporating pheromone over the trail guides an ant along the way, and the ant detects this signal with receptors in its antennae. A trail pheromone will evaporate to furnish the highest concentration of vapor right over the trail, in what is called a vapor space. In following the trail, the ant moves to the right and left, oscillating from side to side across the line of the trail itself, bringing first one and then the other antenna into the vapor space. As the ant moves to the right, its left antenna arrives in the vapor space. The signal it receives causes it to swing to the left, and the ant then pursues this new course until its right antenna reaches the vapor space. It then swings back to the right, and so weaves back and forth down the trail. Question 31. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. The mass migration of ants B. How ants mark and follow a chemical trail C. Different species of ants around the world D. The information contained in pheromones Question 32. The word “intermittently” in line 4 is closest in meaning to A. periodically B. incorrectly C. rapidly D. roughly
11. Question 33. The phrase “the one” in line 8 refers to a single A. message B. dead ant C. food trail D. species Question 34. According to the passage, why do ants use different compounds as trail pheromones? A. To reduce their sensitivity to some chemicals B. To attract different types of ants C. To protect their trail from other species D. To indicate how far away the food is Question 35. The author mentions the trail pheromone of the leafcutter ant in line 11 to point out A. how little pheromone is needed to mark a trail B. the different types of pheromones ants can produce C. a type of ant that is common in many parts of the world D. that certain ants can produce up to one milligram of pheromone Question 36. According to the passage, how are ants guided by trail pheromones? A. They concentrate on the smell of food. B. They follow an ant who is familiar with the trail C. They avoid the vapor spaces by moving in a straight line. D. They sense the vapor through their antennae. Question 37. The word “oscillating“ in line 17 is closest in meaning to A. falling B. depositing C. swinging D. starting Question 38. According to the passage, the highest amount of pheromone vapor is found A. in the receptors of the ants B. just above the trail C. in the source of food D. under the soil along the trail Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions Martin Luther King, Jf., is well- known for his work in civil rights and for his many famous speeches, among which is his moving “ I have a dream” speech. But fewer people know much about King’s childhood. M.L., as he was called, was born in 1929 in Atlanta, Georgia, at the home of his maternal grandfather. M.L.’s grandfather purchased their home on Auburn Avenue in 1909, twenty years before M.L was born. His grandfather allowed the house to be used as a meeting place for a number of organizations dedicated to the education and social advancement of blacks. M.L. grew up in the atmosphere, with his home being used as a community gathering place, and was no doubt influenced by it. M.L.’s childhood was not especially eventfully. His father was a minister and his mother was a musician. He was the second of three children, and he attended all black schools in a black neighborhood. The neighborhood was not poor, however. Auburn Avenue was an area of banks, insurance companies, builders, jewelers, tailors, doctors, lawyers, and other businesses and services. Even in the face of Atlanta’s segregation, the district thrived. Dr. King never forgot the community spirit he had known as a child, nor did he forget the racial prejudice that was a huge barrier keeping black Atlantans from mingling with whites. Question 39. What is the passage mainly about? A. The prejudice that existed in Atlanta. B. M.L.’s grandfather C. Martin Luther King’s childhood. D. The neighborhood King grew up in Question 40. When was M.L. born? A. in 1909 B. in 1929 C. in 1949 D. 20 years after his parents had met. Question 41. What is Martin Luthur King well- known for? A. His publications. B. His neighborhood. C. His childhood. D. His work in civil rights. Question 42. According to the author, M.L. ___. A. had a difficult childhood. B. was a good musician as a child C. loved to listen to his grandfather speak. D. grew up in a relatively rich area of Atlanta. Question 43. Which of the following statements is NOT true? A. Auburn was a commercial areas. B. M.L.’s grandfather built their home on Auburn Avenue in 1909. C. M. L. grew up in a rich, black neighborhood. D. M.L.’s childhood was uneventful. Question 44. From the passage we can infer that: A. M.L.’s father was a church member. B. people gathered at M.L.’s to perform religious rituals. C. M.L.’s father purchased their home on Auburn Avenue. D. M.L. had a bitter childhood. Question 45. M.L. was ___ by the atmosphere in which he grew up. A. not affected at all B. doubted C. certainly influenced D. prejudiced Read the passage and choose the best option to complete each blank. Any change in one part of an ecosystem can cause changes in other parts. Droughts, storms and fires can change ecosystems. Some changes ___46___ ecosystems. If there is too little rainfall, plants will not have enough water to live. If a kind of plant dies off, the animals___47___feed on it may also die or move away. Some changes are good for ecosystems. Some pine forests need fires for the pine trees to reproduce. The seeds are sealed inside pinecones. Heat from a forest fire melts the seal and lets the seeds ___48___. Polluting the air, soil, and water can
12. harm ecosystems. Building dams on rivers for electric power and irrigation can harm ecosystems ___49___ the rivers. Bulldozing wetlands and cutting down forests destroy ecosystems. Ecologists are working with companies and governments to find better ways of ___50___ fish, cutting down trees, and building dams. They are looking for ways to get food, lumber, and other products for people without causing harm to ecosystems. Question 46. A harms B. harmful C. harmless D. harm Question 47. A. who B. where C. that D. when Question 48. A. out B. in C. go D. fly Question 49. A. on B. around C. over D. under Question 50. A. catching B. holding C. carrying D. taking PRACTICE TEST 4 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 1:___ every major judo title, Mark retired from international competition. A. When he wonB. Having won C. Winning D. On winning Question 2: The opposition will be elected into government at the next election, without a ___ of a doubt A. shadeB. shadow C. benefit D. hue Question 3: ___her fiction describes women in unhappy marriages. A. Many ofB. A large number of C. A great volume of D. Much of Question 4: It seems that the world record for this event is almost impossible to ___. A. getB. beatC. take D. achieve Question 5: The smell was so bad that it completely ___us off our food. A. set B. took C. got D. put Question 6: He has been waiting for this letter for days, and at ___it has come. A. lastB. the end C. present D. the moment Question 7: It is___opportunity to see African wildlife in its natural environment. A. an unique B. a unique C. the unique D. unique Question 8: " Why don’t we ask Martin to chair the meeting?” "Well, suppose___to ask him, do you think he would accept?” A. were weB. we have C. we try D. we were Question 9: Delegates will meet with ___from industry and the government. A. RepresentedB. representative C. representatives D. representers Question 10: Determining the mineral content of soil samples is an exacting process; ___ experts must perform detail tests to analyze soil specimens. A. so thatB. However C. afterwards D. therefore Question 11: Peter: “Is it important?” Thomas: “___” A. Not on your life! B. It’s a matter of life and death! C. No worry, that’s nothing. D. It’s ridiculous. Question 12: Ann. “Does the global warming worry you? Mathew. “___”. A. What a shame! B. Oh, it’s hotter and hotter C. I can’t bear to think about it.D. I don’t like hot weather, in the garden all day. Question 13: You look exhausted. You ___ in the garden all day. A. must have worked B. must be working C. can’t have workedD. must have been working Question 14: I’ve never really enjoyed going to the ballet or the opera; they’re not really my___. A. piece of cakeB. sweets and candy C. biscuit D. cup of tea Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part that differs from the other three in the pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 15: A. spear B. gear C. fearD. pear Question 16: A. swordB. sweetC. swearD. swing Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 17: The composer Verdi has written the opera Aiđa to celebrate the opening the Suez Canal, A B C but the opera was not performed until 1871. D Question 18: Wealthy people have always desired and wear precious stones because their beauty A B C
13. is lasting. D Question 19: Every city in the United States has traffic problems because the amount of cars A B C on American streets and highways is increasing every year. D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 20: His physical condition was not an impediment to his career as a violinist A. hindranceB. obstructionC. furtherance D. setback Question 21: The ship went down although strenuous efforts were made to save it. A. exhausting B. forcefulC. energetic D. half-hearted Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word(s) for each of the following blanks. It can take along time to become successful in your chosen field, however talented you are One thing you have to be (22) ___ ofis that you will face criticism along the way. The world is full of people who would rather say something negative than positive. If you’ve made up your mind to achieve a certain goal, such as writing a novel don’t let the negative criticism of others prevent you from reaching your purpose and let constructive criticism have a positive (23) ___ on your work. If someone says you’re totally lacking talent ignore them. That’s negative criticism. If, however, someone advises you to revise your work and gives you good reasons for doing so, you should (24) ___ their suggestions carefully. There are many film stars who were once out of (25) ___ .Therearemanyfamous novelists who made a complete mess of their first novel - or who didn’t, but had to keep on approaching hundreds of publishers before they could get it published. Being successful does depend on luck, to a certain extent. But things are more likely to (26) ___ well if you persevere an s ay Question 22: A. kept in mindB. cleverC. intelligent D. aware Question 23: A. affectB. effectC. result D. change Question 24: A. cautiousB. considerC. reckon D. remember Question 25: A. careerB. business C. job D. work Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. Question 27: A. mutuallyB. apologize C. permission D. reaction Question 28: A. survival B. industtyC. endangered D. commercial Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined pan in each of the following questions. Question 29: She is always diplomatic when she deals with angry students. A. strict B. outspoken C. tactful D. firm Question 30: Nobel's original legacy of nine million dollars was invested, and the interest on this sum is used for the awards which vary from $30, 000 to $125, 000. A. fortuneB. prizeC. heritageD. bequest Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Of all modern instruments, the violin is apparently one of the simplest. It consist in essence of a hollow, varnished wooden sound box, or resonator, and a long neck covered with a fingerboard, along which four strings are stretched at high tension. The beauty of design, shape, and decoration is no accident, the proportions of the instrument are determined entirely by acoustical considerations. Its simplicity of appearance is deceptive. About 70 parts are involved in the construction of a violin. Its tone and its outstanding range of expressiveness make it an ideal solo instrument. No less important, however, is its role as an orchestral and chamber instrument In I combination with the larger and deeper-sounding members of the same family, the violins form the nucleus of the modem symphony orchestra. The violin has been in existence since about 1550. Its importance as an instrument in its own right dates from the early 1600’s, when it first became standard in Italian opera orchestras. Its stature as an orchestral instrument was raised further when in 1626 Louis XIII of France established at his court the orchestra known as Les vinq- quatre violons du Roy (The King's 24 Violins), which was to become widely famous later in the century. In its early history, the violin had a dull and rather quiet tone resulting from the fact that the strings were thick and were attached to the body of the instrument very loosely. During the eighteenth and nineteenth century exciting technical changes were inspired by such composer-violinists as Vivaldi and Tartini. Theừ instrumental compositions demanded a fuller, clearer, and more brilliant tone that was produced by using thinner strings and a far higher string tension. Small changes had to be made to the violin's internal structure and to the fingerboard so that they could withstand the extra strain. Accordingly, a higher standard of performance was achieved, in terms of both facility and interpretation. Left-hand technique was considerably elaborated, and new fingering patterns on the fingerboard were developed for very high notes.
14. Question 31: The word "standard" is closest in meaning to ___. A. practicalB. customary C. possible D. unusual Question 32: "The King’s 24 Violins" is mentioned to illustrate ___. A. the competition in the 1600's between French and Italian orchestras B. how the violin became a renowned instrument C. the superiority of French violins D. why the violin was considered the only instrument suitable to be played by royalty Question 33: What is the main idea presented in paragraph 3? A. The violin is probably the best known and most widely distributed musical instrument in the world. B. The violin has been modified to fit its evolving musical functions. C. The violin had reached the height of its popularity by the middle of the eighteenth century. D. The technique of playing the violin has remained essentially the same since the 1600's. Question 34: The word "they" in paragraph 3 refers to ___. A. Civaldi and TartiniB. internal structure and fingerboard C. thinner strings and a higher string tension D. small changes Question 35: According to the passage, early violins were different from modem violins in that early violins A. were heavierB. produced softer tones C. were easier to play D. broke down more easily Question 36: According to the passage, which of the following contributes to a dull sound being produced by a violin? A. A long fingerboard B. A small bodyC. High string tension D. Thick strings Question 37: All of the following are mentioned in the passage as contributing to the ability to play modern violin music EXCEPT ___. A. use of rare wood for the fingerboard and neck B. different ways to use the fingers to play very high notes C. more complicated techniques for the left hand D. minor alterations to the structure of the instrument Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word(s) for each of the following blanks. Pollutants are clogging up the atmosphere above our planet and trapping the sun's heat. That makes our planet warmer, which causes glaciers to melt, crazy weather patterns to develop, and natural disasters spread like wildfires. But there are other consequences that people don't always associate with climate change. One surprising fact about global warming is that it makes people more aggressive. As the world gets hotter, tempers also get fierier. A new study found that violent crimes and even war become more likely as temperatures rise. Heart rates tend to be elevated in warm weather, so people are prepped for a physical response to a situation. That’s not to say we're headed for a violent end as Earth warms up, though. Advances in everything from technology to health have sparked a decline in conflict. It's just that global warming might be slowing that decline. Question 38: What is trapping the sun’s heat? A. The atmosphereB. Pollutant C. Glaciers D. The atmosphere above our planet Question 39: According to the paragraph 1, all of the following are results of our planet getting warmer EXCEPT A. Melting glaciersB. Increasing greenhouse gas C. Natural disasters like wildfires D. Crazy weather patterns to develop Question 40: One surprising fact about global warming surprising fact about global warming is that A. it could sink citiesB. it makes people more aggressive C. it makes mountains tallerD. It will last for centuries Question 41: What does the new study found about the causes of rising temperatures? A. People becomes more healthyB. Plants bloom earlier in the winter C. Violent crimes are likely to happen D. Sea level rises Question 42: Why are people prepped for a physical response to a situation? A. Because heart rates tend to be elevated in warm weather B. Because there are a lot of surprising facts C. Because their hearts are weaker due to the rising temperatures D. Because they are more aggressive now Question 43: The author uses the phrase “headed for” to mean A. To changeB. To experience something soon C. To go for D. To be good at Question 44: The word “elevated” is closest in meaning to A. droppedB. grewC. enlargedD. raised
15. Question 45: What is the topic of the passage? A. A global warming surprising factB. Aggressive modem people C. The bad effects of global warming D. A study on global warming Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence (hat best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 46: We cut down many forests. The Earth becomes hot. A. The moreforestswe cut down, the hotter the Earth becomes. B. The morewe cut down forests, the hotter the Earth becomes, C. The moreforestswe cut down, the Earth becomes hotter. D. The morewe cut down forests, the Earth becomes hotter. Question 47: The new restaurant looks good. However, it seems to have few costumers. A. In spite of its appearance, the new restaurant does not appear to attract much business. B. The new restaurant would have more customers if it looked better. C. In order to get more business, the new restaurant should improve its appearance. D. If it had a few more customers, the new restaurant would look better. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the sentence which is closest in meaning to the given one. Question 48: Please arrive early because we want to be able to start our meeting early A. Please arrive early so that we can start our meeting early. B. Please arrive early so that we are able to start our meeting early C. Please arrive early so that we would be able to start our meeting early D. Please arrive early for us to be able to start our meeting early Question 49: There was no need for you to have left the house in such weather. A. You needn’t leave the house in such weather. B. You needn’t have left the house in such weather. C. You didn’t have to leave the house in such weather. D. You didn’t need to leave the house in such weather. Question 50: The concert went like a bomb. A. The concert was a disasterB. There was a bomb in the concert C. The concert was very violent D. The concert was extremely successful. PRACTICE TEST 5 Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks. Any change in one part of an ecosystem can cause changes in other parts. Droughts, storms and fires can change ecosystems. Some changes (1) ___ ecosystems. If there is too (2) ___ rainfall, plants will not have enough water to live. If a kind of plant dies off, the animals that feed on it may also die or move away. Some changes are good for ecosystems. Some pine forests need fires for the pine trees to reproduce. The seeds are sealed inside pinecones. Heat from a forest fire melts the seal and lets the seeds (3) ___. Polluting the air, soil, and water can harm ecosysterms. Building (4)___ on rivers for electric power and irrigation can harm ecosystems around the rivers. Bulldozing wetlands and cutting down forests destroy ecosystems. Ecologists are working with companies and governments to find better ways of (5) ___ fish, cutting down trees, and building dams. They are looking for ways to get food, lumber, and other products for people without causing harm to ecosystems. Question 1. A. harms B. harmfulC. harmless D. harm Question 2. A. littleB. a littleC. fewD. a few Question 3. A. outB. ỉnC. goD. fly Question 4. A. moatsB. ditchesC. bridgesD. dams Question 5. A. catchingB. holdingC. carryingD. taking Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part that differs from the other three in thepronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 6: A. state B. status C. station D. statue Question 7: A. bury B. carry C. heavy D. many Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. Question 8: A. popularityB. conscientiousC. apprenticeshipD. personality Question 9: A. consonantB. divisible C. significant D. mosquito Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or Don your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer In the last third of the nineteenth century a new housing form was quietly being developed. In 1869 the Stuyvesant, considered New York’s first apartment house was built on East Eighteenth Street. The building was
16. financed by the developer Rutherfurd Stuyvesant and designed by Richard Morris Hunt, the first American architect to graduate from the Ecole des Beaux Arts in Paris. Each man had lived in Paris, and each understood the economics and social potential of this Parisian housing form. But the Stuyvesant was at best a limited success. In spite of Hunt’s inviting facade, the living space was awkwardly arranged. Those who could afford them were quite content to remain in the more sumptuous, single-family homes, leaving the Stuyvesant to newly married couples and bachelors. The fundamental problem with the Stuyvesant and the other early apartment buildings that quickly followed, in the 1870’s and early 1880’s was that they were confined to the typical New York building lot. That lot was a rectangular area 25 feet wide by 100 feet deep-a shape perfectly suited for a row house. The lot could also accommodate a rectangular tenement, though it could not yield the square, well-lighted, and logically arranged rooms that great apartment buildings require. But even with the awkward interior configurations of the early apartment buildings, the idea caught on. It met the needs of a large and growing population that wanted something better than tenements but could not afford or did not want row houses. So while the city’s newly emerging social leadership commissioned their mansions, apartment houses and hotels began to sprout in multiple lots, thus breaking the initial space constraints. In the closing decades of the Question 10: The new housing form discussed in the passage refers to A. single-family homes B. apartment buildings C. row housesD. hotels Question 11: The word “inviting” in bold is closest in meaning to A. openB. encouragingC.attractiveD. asking Question 12: Why was the Stuyvesant a limited success? A. The arrangement of the rooms was not convenient. B. Most people could not afford to live there, C. There were no shopping areas nearby. D. It was in a crowded neighborhood. Question 13: It can be inferred that the majority of people who lived in New York’s first apartments were A. highly educatedB. unemployedC.wealthyD. young Question 14: It can be inferred that a New York apartment building in the 1870’s and 1880’s had all of the following characteristics EXCEPT: A. Its room arrangement was not logical.B.It was rectangular, C. It was spacious inside.D.It had limited light. Question 15: The word “yield” in bold is closest in meaning to A. harvestB. surrenderC. amountD. provide Question 16: Why did the idea of living in an apartment become popular in the late 1800’s? A. Large families needed housing with sufficient space. B. Apartments were preferable to tenements and cheaper than row houses C. The city officials of New York wanted housing that was centrally located. D. The shape of early apartments could accommodate a variety of interior designs. Question 17: The author mentions the Dakota and the Ansonia in bold because A. they are examples of large, well-designed apartment buildings B. their design is similar to that of row houses C. they were built on a single building lot D. they are famous hotels Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the italic part in each of the following questions Question 18: Mr. Smith’s new neighbors appear to be very friendlỵ. A. amicableB. inapplicableC. hostileD. futile Question 19: The clubs meet on the last Thursday of every month in a dilapidated palace. A. renovatedB. regeneratedC. furnishedD. neglected Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 20: ___we’re been having! A. What dreadful weatherB. How dreadful is the weather C. How dreadful the weatherD. What a dreadful weather Question 21: They ___have seen the play last night as they went to a football match instead. A. couldB. mustC. mightD. can't Question 22:“ ___” “Not really.” A. I don't like that new movie. B. Would you like to watch a cartoon or a documentary? C. Would you recommend the new movie at the Odeon? D. How often đo you go to the movies?
17. Question 23: Something tells me that you ___to a single word I ___in the past ten minutes. A. haven’t listened\was sayingB. didn’t listen\ said C. haven’t been listening\ have saidD. haven’t listened\ said Question 24: The ___horse began to run as fast as he could. A. frighteningB. frighten C. frightfulD. frightened Question 25: The police spokesman said he was___to believe that the arrested man was the serial killer they had been looking for. A. inclinedB. seemed C. suspectedD. supposed Question 26: For lunch, I always have something quick and easy: a sandwich, a salad, toast and the ___. A. sameB. similar C. likeD. rest Question 27:1 don’t think anyone understood what I was saying at the meeting, did they? I totally failed to get my point ___. A. aroundB. along C. acrossD. about Question 28: This fruit has been in the fridge for over three weeks! It is all . A. sourB. mouldy C. rottenD. bitter Question 29: As I have just had a tooth ___, I am not allowed to eat or drink anything for three hours. A. Taken outB. crossed out C. broken offD. tried on Question 30: We don't seem to have any more of that book, Sir. It is out of ___but we are getting a new delivery next Thursday if you would like to pop back then. A. stockB. order C. printD. shop Question 31: - "What do you think of football?" -" ___" A. I am crazy about it.B. Of course, football players are excellent C. Well, it's beyond my expectation D. It's none of my business. Question 32: As coal mines became deeper, the problems of draining water, bringing in fresh air, and to the surface increased. A. how ore is transportedB. transporting ore C. ore is transporting D. to transport ore Question 33: I'm ___my brother is. A. nowhere near as ambitious asB. nothing near as ambitious as C. nowhere like so ambitious as D. nothing as ambitious as Mark the letter A, B, c or D to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the italic part in each of the following questions Question 34: He didn’t bat an eye when he realized he failed the exam again. A. didn’t want to seeB. didn’t show surprise C. wasn’t happyD. didn’t care Question 35: The changes in a person's physical and emotional state caused by drinking alcohol are known as intoxication. A. DrunkennessB. Poison C. sleepinessD. Excitement Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer. Are organically grown foods the best food choices? The advantages claimed for such foods over conventionally grown and marketed food products are now being debated. Advocates of organic foods-a term whose meaning varies greatly - frequently proclaim that such products are safer and more nutritious than others. The growing interest of consumers in the safety and more nutritional quality of the typical North American diet is a welcome development. However, much of this interest has been sparked by sweeping claims that the food supply is unsafe or inadequate in meeting nutritional needs. Although most of these claims are not supported by scientific evidence, the preponderance of written material advancing such claims makes it difficult for the general public to separate fact from fiction. As a result, claims that eating a diet consisting entirely of organically grown foods prevents or cures disease or provides other benefits to health have become widely publicized and form the basis for folklore. Almost daily the public is besieged by claims for “no-aging" diets, new vitamins, and other wonder foods. There are numerous unsubstantiated reports that natural vitamins are superior to synthetic ones, that fertilized eggs are nutritionally superior to unfertilized eggs, that untreated grains are better than fumigated grains and the like. One thing that most organically grown food products seem to have in common is that they cost more than conventionally grown foods. But in many cases consumers are misled if they believe organic foods can maintain health and provide better nutritional quality than conventionally grown foods. So there IS real cause for concern if consumers, particularly those with limited incomes, distrust the regular food and buy only expensive organic foods instead. Question 36: The world "Advocates" is closest in meaning to which of the following? A. ProponentsB. MerchantsC. Inspectors D. Consumers Question 37: The word "others" refers to___. A advantagesB. advocatesC. organic foodsD. products
18. Question 38: The "welcome development" is an increase in ___. A. interest in food safety and nutritional quality of the typical North American diet B. the nutritional quality of the typical North American diet C. the amount of healthy food grown in North America D. the number of consumers in North America Question 39: According to the first paragraph, which of the following is true about the term "organic foods"? A. It is accepted by most nutritionists, B. It has been used only in recent years, C. It has no fixed meaning. D. It is seldom used by consumers. Question 40: The author implies that there is cause for concern if consumers with limited incomes buy organic foods instead of conventionally grown foods because ___. A. organic foods can be more expensive but are often no better than conventionally grown foods B. many organic foods are actually less nutritious than similar conventionally grown foods C. conventionally grown foods are more readily available than organic foods D. too many farmers will stop using conventional methods to grow food crops. Question 41: According to the last paragraph, consumers who believe that organic foods are better than conventionally grown foods are often ___. A. carelessB. mistakenC. thrifty D. wealthy Question 42: What is the one thing in common that most organic food seem to have? A. They cost more than conventionally grown food B. They are healthier than conventionally grown food C. They come from an unknown source D. They are home - made Mark the letter on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correcting. Question 43: After the social science lecture all students are invited to take part in a discussion A B of the issues which were risen in the talk. C D Question 44: A football match begins with the ball kicking forwards from a spot in the centre of the A B C D field. Question 45: They had a discussion about training not only the new employees but also giving them A B C some challenges. D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 46 The match on Sunday is very popular. It was wise of him to buy the tickets in advance. A. Since it is a popular match, he should have brought the tickets beforehand. B. Although he bought the tickets in advance, he wasn’t wise to forsee the match popularity, C. Such is the popularity of the match on Sunday that he wisely bought the tickets beforehand. D. The match on Sunday is so popular that he had enough wisdom to buy the tickets in advance. Question 47: We arrived at airport. We realized our passports were still at home. A. It was until we arrived at the airport that we realize our passports were still at home. B. We arrived at the airport and realized that our passports arc still at home, C. Not until had we aưivcd at the airport, we realized our passports were still at home. D. Not until we arrived at the airport, did wc realize that our passports were still at home. Mark the letter A B c or D on your answer sheet to choose the sentence winch is closest in meaning to the given one. Question 48 Friendly though he may seem, he’s not to be trusted. A. He's too friendly to be trusted. B. However he seems friendly, he's not to be trusted, C. He may have friends, but he’s not to be trusted. D. However friendly he seems, he's not to be trusted, Question 49: “You’re always making terrible mistakes”, said the teacher. A The teacher asked his students why they always made terrible mistakes. B The teacher realized that his students always made terrible mistakes, C. The teacher complained about his students making terrible mistakes. D. The teacher made his students not always make terrible mistakes. Question 50: The criminal is believed to be living abroad
19. A. There’s a belief that that the criminal should be living abroad. B. It is believed that the criminal is living abroad, C. The belief is that the criminal should be living abroad. D. It believes that the criminal is living abroad. PRACTICE TEST 6 Read the passages and choose the best answer to each question. As the twentieth century began, the importance of formal education in the United States increased. The frontier had mostly disappeared and by 1910 most Americans lived in towns and cities. Industrialization and the bureaucratization of economic life combined with a new emphasis upon credentials and expertise to make schooling increasingly important for economic and social mobility. Increasingly, too, schools were viewed as the most important means of integrating immigrants into American society. The arrival of a great wave of southern and eastern European immigrants at the turn of the century coincided with and contributed to an enormous expansion of formal schooling. By 1920 schooling to age fourteen or beyond was compulsory in most states, and the school year was greatly lengthened. Kindergartens, vacation schools, extracurricular activities, and vocational education and counseling extended the influence of public schools over the lives of students, many of whom in the larger industrial cities were the children of immigrants. Classes for adult immigrants were sponsored by public schools, corporations, unions, churches, settlement houses, and other agencies. Reformers early in the twentieth century suggested that education programs should suit the needs of specific populations. Immigrant women were once such population. Schools tried to educate young women so they could occupy productive places in the urban industrial economy, and one place many educators considered appropriate for women was the home. Although looking after the house and family was familiar to immigrant women, American education gave homemaking a new definition. In preindustrial economies, homemaking had meant the production as well as the consumption of goods, and it commonly included income-producing activities both inside and outside the home, in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States, however, overproduction rather than scarcity was becoming a problem. Thus, the ideal American homemaker was viewed as a consumer rather than a producer. Schools trained women to be consumer homemakers cooking, shopping, decorating, and caring for children "efficiently" in their own homes, or if economic necessity demanded, as employees in the homes of others. Subsequent reforms have made these notions seem quite out-of-date. Cõu 1 The paragraph preceding the passage probably discusses ___. A. the industrialization and the bureaucratization of economic life the United States in the nineteen century. B. the formal schooling in the United States in the nineteen century. C. the urbanization in the United States in the nineteen century. D. the most important means of integrating immigrants into American society in the nineteen century. Cõu 2. It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that one important factor in the increasing importance of education in the United States was ___. A. the expanding economic problems of schools B. the growing number of schools in frontier communities C. an increase in the number of trained teachers D. the increased urbanization of the entire country Cõu 3. The word "means" in line 5 is closest in meaning to ___. A. qualifications B. method C. advantages D. probability Cõu 4. The phrase "coincided with" in line 7 is closest in meaning to ___. A. happened at the same time as B. ensured the success of C. was influenced by D. began to grow rapidly Cõu 5. According to the passage, one important change in United States education by the 1920's was that ___. A. the amount of time spent on formal education was limited B. new regulations were imposed on nontraditional education C. adults and children studied in the same classes D. most places required children to attend school Cõu 6. “Vacation schools and extracurricular activities” are mentioned in line 9 to illustrate ___. A. activities that competed to attract new immigrants to their programs. B. alternatives to formal education provided by public schools C. the importance of educational changes D. the increased impact of public schools on students Cõu 7. According to the passage, early-twentieth century education reformers believed that ___.
20. A. special programs should be set up in frontier communities to modernize them B. corporations and other organizations damaged educational progress C. different groups needed different kinds of education D. more women should be involved in education and industry Cõu 8. The word "it" in line 19 refers to ___. A. education B. consumption C. production D. homemaking Cõu 9. Women were trained to be consumer homemakers as a result of ___. A. scarcity in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States B. economic necessity in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States C. income-producing activities in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States D. overproduction in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States Cõu 10. Which paragraph mentions the importance of abilities and experience in formal schooling? A. Paragraph 2 B. Paragraph 4 C. Paragraph 1 D. Paragraph 3 Choose the correct sentence which has the same meaning as the given one Cõu 11. The USA is a country of high youth unemployment. A. We find high youth unemployment a problem in the USA. B. It is the USE that has a great number of young people. C. High youth unemployment is found in the USA. D. The USA is a country of young people. Cõu 12. My mother is very busy at work but she takes good care of her children. A. In spite of being busy at work, my mother takes good care of her children. B. My mother takes good care of her children but she is very busy at work. C. Though my mother was very busy at work my mother took good care of her children. D. Although my mother was very busy at work she did not take good care of her children. Cõu 13. “You’d better think carefully before applying for that job.” She said to me. A. She said me to think carefully before applying for that job. B. She says me to think carefully before applying for that job. C. She advise me to think carefully before applying for that job. D. She advised me to think carefully before applying that job. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following. Cõu 14. “Please speak up a bit more, Jason. You’re hardly loud enough to be heard from the back”, the teacher said. A. visible B. edible C. eligible D. audible Cõu 15. Whenever problems come up, we discuss them frankly and find solutions quickly. A. cleanB. encounter C. arriveD. happen Pick out the word that has primary stress different from that of other words Cõu 16. A. holidayB. adventureC. industryD. certainly Cõu 17. A. finishB. pastimeC. summerD. begin Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the Cõu 18. You know how much I love spending a weekend in the country after a long and hard-working term. A. easygoingB. idleC. badD. weak Cõu 19. Why did parents oppose to the ideas of sending their children to the special class at first? A. unlimitedB. everyday C. normalD. undefined Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentence in the following questions. Cõu 20. The plants may develop differently. The plants live on that island. A. The plants which live on that island may develop differently. B. The plants live on that island may develop differently. C. The plants which lives on that island may develop differently. D. The plants which live that island may develop differently. Cõu 21. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water. Others live in sea water. A. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, for others live in sea water. B. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, and others live in sea water. C. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, or others live in sea water. D. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, so others live in sea water. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. All life is sound. We are constantly surrounded by sounds and noises (22)___ by nature and everything in it. For thousands of years man has been speaking and singing, and (23)___ his wonderfully constructed ear, perceiving sounds and noises, although they are but a small part of the inconceivable wealth of sounds filling the
21. universe. Children everywhere and without (24)___ are born with musical abilities with voices, and with hearing. The difference lies (25)___ in what they do with these gifts. That (26)___ according to temperament upbringing nationality, and time. Cõu 22. A. found B. heard C. produced D. existing Cõu 23. A. thanks to B. based on C. in spite of D. without Cõu 24. A. exception B. doubt C. consideration D. preparation Cõu 25. A. absolutely B. merely C. especially D. suddenly Cõu 26. A. depends B. forms C. varies D. differentiates Choose the most suitable words or phrases to fill in the blanks. Cõu 27. We can ___ not only through words but also through body language. A. talkB. transferC. interpretD. communicate Cõu 28. Since I wanted to get the bill, I tried to attract waiter’s ___. A. eyeB. agreementC. assistantD. attention Cõu 29. Her relatives didn’t do anything to help her, and her friends ___. A. didn’t neitherB. didn’t tooC. didn’t eitherD. did too Cõu 30. They are close-knit family and very ___ of one another. A. supportiveB. supportC. supportedD. supporting Cõu 31. You can drive my car ___ you drive carefully. A. unlessB. becauseC. as long asD. although Cõu 32. Primary education is a stage of study ___ children age from 5 to 11 years old. A. toB. forC. inD. with Cõu 33. The school year in Vietnam ___ divided into two terms. A. wasB. areC. isD. is being Cõu 34. Neither the students nor the lecturer ___ English in the classroom. A. useB. usesC. are usingD. have used Cõu 35. ___ I moved in my new apartment, my neighbors have come to my house twice. A. becauseB. sinceC. whenD. after Cõu 36. Helen’s parents was very pleased when they read her school ___. A. reportB. papersC. diplomaD. account Cõu 37. Eating and living in this country is becoming ___ expensive. A. more and moreB. tooC. lessD. so Cõu 38. The wedding day was ___ chosen by the parents of the groom. A. carelessB. carefulC. carelesslyD. carefully Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in e Cõu 39. While the Brows were away on holiday, their house was broke into. A. theB. wereC. awayD. broke into Cõu 40. Difference conversation efforts have been made in order to saving endangered species. A. DifferenceB. have been madeC. savingD. endangered species Cõu 41. There have been a report of several bombings by terrorist group. A. have beenB. severalC. bombings D. terrorist Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the Cõu 42. – “Would you like some more tea?” – “___” A. Yes, pleaseB. Yes, thanksC. No, thank D. No, please Cõu 43. “That’s a nice dress you are wearing” – “___” A. I’m glad you like it B. That’s alright C. That’s nice D. You’re quite right Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct “Where is the university?” is a question many visitors to Cambridge ask, but no one can give them a clear answer, for there is no wall to be found around the university. The university is the city. You can find the classroom buildings, libraries, museums and offices of the university all over the city. And most of its members are the students and teachers or professors of the thirty-one colleges. Cambridge is already a developing town long before the first students and teachers arrived 800 years ago. It grew up by the river Granta, as the Cam was once called. A bridge was built over the river as early as 875. In the fourteenth and fifteenth centuries, more and more land was used for college buildings. The town grew faster in the nineteenth century after the opening of the railway in 1845. Cambridge became a city in 1951 and now it has the population of over 100000. Many young students want to study at Cambridge. Thousands of people from all over the world come to visit the university town. It has become a famous place all around the world. Cõu 44. Why did people name Cambridge the “city of Cambridge”? A. Because the river was very well-known.B. Because there is a bridge over the Cam. C. Because it was a developing town.D. Because there is a river named Granta.
22. Cõu 45. From what we read we know that now Cambridge is ___. A. visited by international touristsB. a city without wall C. a city of growing populationD. a city that may have a wall around Cõu 46. Around what time did the university begin to appear? A. In the 8th century B. In the 13th centuryC. In the 9 th century D. In the 15th century Cõu 47. Why do most visitors come to Cambridge? A. To see the universityB. To study in the colleges in Cambridge C. To find the classroom buildingsD. To use the libraries of the university Cõu 48. After which year did the town really begin developing? A. 800B. 875C. 1845 D. 1951 Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. Cõu 49. A. dependsB. years C. templesD. parents Cõu 50. A. filledB. missed C. ploughedD. watched PRACTICE TEST 7 Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 1: “Remember to phone me when you arrive at the airport” “___” A. I remember B. I doC. I don’t D. I will Question 2: We should participate in the movements ___ the natural environment. A. organizing to conserve B. organized conserving C. organized to conserveD. which organize to conserve Question 3: Certificates provide proof of your ___. A. qualificationsB. diplomasC. ambitions D. in order that Question 4: Prices continued to rise while wages remained low ___ the Government became increasingly unpopular. A. on condition that B. with the result thatC. provided thatD. bound Question 5: There is ___to be a serious energy crisis in the next century. A. reputedB. knownC. foreseen D. qualities Question 6:___interested in that subject, I would try to learn more about it. A. Were IB. If I amC. Should ID. I was Question 7: I’m not sure my brother will ever get married because he hates the feeling of being ___ A. tied in B. tied downC. tied upD. tied in with Question 8: Helen has just bought ___. A. some new black wool two scarvesB. two black wool new scarves C. two new black wool scarvesD. two scarves new wool black Question 9: Another ___will be drawn from the experiment. A. conclusionB. attention C. contrast D. inference Question 10: Joanne has only one eye, she lost A. otherB. other ones C. another one D. the other Question 11: Don’t ___You’ve only just begun the course. A. put up B. get up C. give up D. grow up Question 12: No matter ___Mozart was an accomplished composer while still a child. A. how it seems remarkable B. how remarkable it seems C. how it remarkable seems D. how seems it remarkable Question 13: She is extremely competent and ___. A. IndustrialB. indusứious C. industry D. industrialized. Question 14: “Is it all right if I use your bike?” -“___” A. I don’t want to use your bike B. Sure, go ahead C. Sorry, no, I won’t do itD. Please accept it with my best wishes Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks. Ever since it was first possible to make a real robot, people have been hoping for the invention of a machine that would do all the necessary jobs around the house If boring and repetitive factory work could be (21) ___ by robots, why not boring and repetitive household chores too? For a long time the only people who really gave the problem their attention were amateur inventors And they came up against a major difficulty. That is, housework is actually very complex It has never been one job it has always been many. A factor robot (23) ___ one task endlessly until it is reprogrammed to do something else. It doesn’t run the whole factory. A housework robot on the other hand, has to do several different (25) ___
23. of cleaning and carrying jobs and also has to cope (26) ___ all the different shapes and positions of rooms, furniture, ornaments, cats and dogs. (27) ___, there have been some developments recently. Sensors are available to help the robot locate objects and avoid obstacles. We have the technology to produce the hardware. All that is missing the software- the programs that will operate the machine. Question 15: A. managedB. succeeded C. madeD. given Question 16: A. carries over B. carries out. C. carries off D. carries away Question 17: A. systemsB. types C. waysD. methods Question 18: A. fromB. with C. byD. for Question 19: A. HoweverB. Therefore C. BesidesD. Moreover Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part that differs from the other three in the pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 20: A. methodB. father C. featherD. weather Question 21: A. chemistryB. children C. schoolingD. character Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. Question 22: A. politicalB. furniture C. yesterdayD. ambulance Question 23: A. humorousB. educator C. organismD. contaminate Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. According to airline industry statistics, almost 90 percent of airline accidents are survivable or partially survivable. But passengers can increase their chances of survival by learning and following certain tips. Experts say that you should read and listen to safety instruction before take off and ask questions if you have uncertainties. You should fasten your seat belt low on your hips and as tightly as possible. Of course, you should also know how the release mechanism of your belt operates. During takeoffs and landings, you are advised to keep your feet flat on the floor. Before take off, you should locate the nearest exit and an alterative exit and count the rows of seats between you and the exits so that you can reach them in the dark if necessary. In the event that you are forewarned of a possible accident, you should put your hands on your ankles and keep your head down until the planes comes to a complete stop. If smoke is present in the cabin, you should keep your head low and cover your face with napkins, towels, or clothing. If possible, wet these for added protection against smoke inhalation. To evacuate as quickly as possible, follow crew commands and do not take personal belongings with you. Do not jump on escape slides before they are fully inflated, and when you jump, do so with your arms and legs extended in front of you. When you get to the ground, you should move away from the plane as quickly as possible, and smoke near the wreckage Question 24: What is the main topic of the passage? A. Procedures for evacuation aircraft. B. Guidelines for increasing aircraft passenger survival, C. Airline industry accident statistics. D. Safety instructions in air travel. Question 25: Travelers are urged by experts to read and listen to safety instruction ___. A. if smoke is in the cabin B. in an emergency C. before locating the exits D. before take-off Question 26: According to the passage, airline travelers should keep their feet flat on the floor___. A. especially during landingsB. throughout the flight C. only if an accident is possible D. during take-offs and landings Question 27: According to the passage, which exits should an airline passenger locate before take-off? A. The ones with counted rows of seats between them. B. The nearest one. C. The two closest to the passenger’s seat D. The ones that can be found in the dark Question 28: The word “them” in bold refers to A. seatsB. rowsC. exits D. feet Question 29: It can be inferred from the passage that people are more likely to survive fires in aircrafts if they A. don’t smoke in or near a planeB. read airline safety statistics C. wear a safety belt D. keep their heads low Question 30: Airline passengers are advised to do all of the following EXCEPT ___ A. ask questions about safety B. locate the nearest exit C. fasten their seat belts before take-off D. carry personal belongings in an emergency Question 31: The word “Inflated” in bold is closest in meaning to ___ A. expanded B. liftedC. assembledD. increased Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 32: Antarctic blue whales can be 100 foot long and weigh more than any dinosaur that ever lived. A B C D
24. Question 33: The nests of most bird species are strategic placed to camouflage them against predators. A B C D Question 34: All data in computer are changed into electronic pulses by an input unit. A B C D Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 35: If the world’s tropical forests continue to disappear at their present rate, many animal species will be extinct. A. die forB. die from C. die ofD. die out Question 36: The students got high marks in the test but Mary stood out. A. got very good marks.B. got a lot of marks. C. got higher marks than someone.D. got the most marks of all. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions Fish that live on the sea bottom benefit by being flat and hugging the contours. There are two very different types of flatfish and they have evolved in very separate ways. The skates and rays, relatives of the sharks have become flat in what might be called the obvious way. Their bodies have grown out sideways to form great “wings” They look as though they have been flattened but have remained symmetrical and “the right way up” Conversely fish such as plaice, sole, and halibut have become flat in a different way. There are bony fish which have a marked tendency to be flattened in a vertical direction; they are much “taller” than they are wide. They use their whole vertically flattened bodies as swimming surfaces, which undulate through the water as they move. Therefore when * their ancestors migrated to the seabed, they lay on one side than on their bellies. However, this raises the problem that one eye was always looking down into the sand and was effectively useless - In evolution this problem was solved by the lower eye “moving” around the other side. We see this process of moving around enacted in the development of every young bony flatfish. It starts life swimming near the surface, and is symmetrical and vertically flattened, but then the skull starts to grow in a strange asymmetrical twisted fashion, so that one eye for instance the left, moves over the top of the head upwards, an old Picasso - like vision. Incidentally, some species of 20 flatfish settle on the right side, others on the left, and others on either side. Question 37: The passage is mainly concerned with: A. symmetrical flatfish B. bony flatfish C. evolution of flatfishD. different types of flatfish Question 38: The author mentions skates and rays as examples of fish that: A. become asymmetricalB. appear to fly C. have spread horizontallyD. resemble sharks Question 39: It can be inferred from the passage that horizontal symmetrical fish: A. have one eye each side of the headB. have one eye underneath the head C. have two eyes on top of the headD. have eyes that move around the head Question 40: The word “conversely” is closest in meaning to: A. SimilarlyB. AlternativelyC. InverselyD. Contrarily Question 41: The word “this” refers to A. the migration of the ancestorsB. the practice of lying on one side C. the problem of the one eye looking downwards D. the difficulty of the only one eye being useful Question 42: According to the passage, the ability of a bony flatfish to move its eyes around is A. averageB. weak C. excellentD. variable Question 43: It can be inferred from the passage that the early life of a flatfish is: A. often confusingB. pretty normalC. very difficultD. full of danger Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 44: No one knew precisely what would happen to a human being in space A. casuallyB. flexiblyC. wronglyD. informally Question 45: China has become the third country in the world which can independently carried out the manned space activities. A. Put upB. put inC. put offD. put on Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on you answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 46: It was an interesting novel. I stayed up all night to finish it A. I stayed up all night to finish the novel so it was interesting. B. Unless it were an interesting novel, I would not stay up all night to finish it. C. Though it was an interesting novel, I stayed up all night to finish it. D. So interesting was the novel that I stayed up all night to finish It. Question 47: The teacher gave some instructions. I don’t understand any of them.
25. A. The instructions the teacher gave are not understanding to me. B. It was the instructions the teacher gave that confused me. C. It hasn’t been clear to me about the instructions given by the teacher D. I’m finding it difficult to figure out what the teacher required according to his instructions Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the sentence which is closest in meaning to the given one. Question 48: You should have persuaded him to change his mind. A. It was essential to persuade him to change his mind but you didn’t. B. You didn't persuade him to change because of his mind, C. You should persuade him to change his mind. D. You persuaded him to change his mind but he didn't listen. Question 49: When the unemployment rate is high, the crime rate is usually also high A. The unemployment rate and the crime rate are both higher. B. The higher the unemployment rate is, the higher the crime rate is. C. The unemployment rate is as high as the crime rate. D. The high rate of unemployment depends on the high rate of crime. Question 50:1 wish you hadn't said that, A. I wish you not to say that.B. If only you didn’t say that, C. I hope you will not say that. D. It would be nice if you hadn’t said that. PRACTICE TEST 8 Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 1 to 8. The Fukushima I nuclear accidents are a series of ongoing equipment failures and releases of radioactive materials at the Fukushima I Nuclear Power Plant, following the 9.0 magnitude Tōhoku earthquake and tsunami on 11 March 2011. The plant comprises six separate boiling water reactors maintained by the Tokyo Electric Power Company (TEPCO). This accident is the largest of the 2011 Japanese nuclear accidents arising from the Tōhoku earthquake and tsunami, and experts consider it to be the second largest nuclear accident after the Chernobyl disaster, but more complex as all reactors are involved. At the time of the quake, reactor 4 had been de-fueled while 5 and 6 were in cold shutdown for planned maintenance. The remaining reactors shut down automatically after the earthquake, with emergency generators starting up to run the control electronics and water pumps needed to cool reactors. The plant was protected by a seawall designed to withstand a 5.7 metres (19 ft) tsunami but not the 14-metre (46 ft) maximum wave which arrived 41–60 minutes after the earthquake. The entire plant was flooded, including low-lying generators and electrical switchgear in reactor basements and external pumps for supplying cooling seawater. The connection to the electrical grid was broken. All power for cooling was lost and reactors started to overheat, due to natural decay of the fission products created before shutdown. The flooding and earthquake damage hindered external assistance. Evidence soon arose of partial core meltdown in reactors 1, 2, and 3; hydrogen explosions destroyed the upper cladding of the buildings housing reactors 1, 3, and 4; an explosion damaged the containment inside reactor 2; multiple fires broke out at reactor 4. Despite being initially shutdown, reactors 5 and 6 began to overheat. Fuel rods stored in pools in each reactor building began to overheat as water levels in the pools dropped. Fears of radiation leaks led to a 20-kilometre (12 mi) radius evacuation around the plant while workers suffered radiation exposure and were temporarily evacuated at various times. One generator at unit 6 was restarted on 17 March allowing some cooling at units 5 and 6 which were least damaged. Grid power was restored to parts of the plant on 20 March, but machinery for reactors 1 through 4, damaged by floods, fires and explosions, remained inoperable. Flooding with radioactive water through the basements of units 1–4 continues to prevent access to carry out repairs. Measurements taken by the Japanese science ministry and education ministry in areas of northern Japan 30–50 km from the plant showed radioactive caesium levels high enough to cause concern. Food grown in the area was banned from sale. It was suggested that worldwide measurements of iodine-131 and caesium-137 indicate that the releases from Fukushima are of the same order of magnitude as the releases of those isotopes from the Chernobyl disaster in 1986; Tokyo officials temporarily recommended that tap water should not be used to prepare food for infants. Plutonium contamination has been detected in the soil at two sites in the plant. Two workers hospitalized as a precaution on 25 March had been exposed to between 2000 and 6000 mSv of radiation at their ankles when standing in water in unit 3. Cõu 1. What is the main topic of the passage? A. Japanese natural disaster – the nuclear power accident. B. Fukushima I nuclear accident – the largest nuclear power of all time.